Okay so here is a run-down on what
happened:
Her period began on Feb 12th.
We had sex on Feb 15th. No action was
taken.
We had sex again on Mar 10th.
She took the first dosage of the
morning-after pill on Mar 12th.
It's Mar 16th right now and her period
still hasn't come.
On the first occasion, she was still
bleeding the next morning because of her
period. According to
http://www.fhi.org/pic/menc
ycle.gif, we had sex on the 3rd or 4th
tile, which is not in the "Fertile Time".
Let's assume that this graph is
inaccurate, so pretend the fertile time
stretches from the 7th and 17th tile.
I've also heard that sperm can live in the
girl for 3 days? So if we had sex on the
3rd or 4th tile, it may have stayed over
into the fertile time, the 7th tile.
The thing is, I was pretty drunk on Feb
15th. For me, I'm around 50% sure I didn't
ejaculate because it's hard for me to
ejaculate when i'm intoxicated.
As for the occasion on March 10th, she
took the first pill 2 days later at 7:00
pm, and the second pill the next morning
at 7:00 am. Referring to the menstrual
cycle chart in the link earlier, this
would be at the 24th tile, also out of the
fertile time zone.
According to
h
ttp://www.nyabortion.com/birthcontrol/them
orningpill.shtml#6, "Women using the
morning-after pill may experience a change
in their next period. It may come early,
on time, or be late. Most women will get
their period 7 to 9 days after treatment."
Right now I'm extremely nervous and
worried because we both do not want a
child or complications. In what light
should I be looking at this situation?
