i just recieved a copy of an mri and
because I must wait a month before I see
my neurologist (veterans administration at
it's best) I thought i'd look for help in
deciphering it here:
mri of the lumbar spine with and without
gadolinium
technique: 4 mm. In thickness sagittal
and axial images are obtained with t1
weighting before and after the intravenous
administration of gadolinium and with t2
weighting.
Findings: I do not identify an abnormal
signal in the inferior portion of the
spinal cord or the conus medullaris.
There is a minimal levoscoliosis and there
is straightening in the normal lordotic
curve of the lumbar spine. I do not see
evidence for marrow edema or for a marrow
replacing process.
There is decreased signal in the lumbar
intervertebral discs at the l3-l4, l4-l5,
and l5-s1 levels on the t2 weighted
images. This change is due to disc
desiccation secondary to degenerative disc
disease. The signal in the other lumbar
intervertebral discs is bright and within
normal limits.
There is no bulging, protrusion, or
extrusion of disc content at l1-l2, l2-l3,
or l3-l4 levels. At the l3-l4 level
there are osteoarthritic changes in the
apophyseal joints with bilateral lateral
recess narrowing.
At the l4-l5 level there is a disc bulge
to the right of midline with extra dural
impression upon the right sided epidural
fat plane and with mild right sided
foraminal narrowing. There are
osteoarthritic changes in the apophyseal
joints at this level with bony overgrowth
and resultant bilateral lateral recess
narrowing.
At the l5-s1 level there is a disc bulge
with extradural impression upon the thecal
sac anteriorly and to the right of
midline. There are osteoarthritic
changes in the apopyseal joints. I do
not see foraminal narrowing.
I guess i'll list the parts of the report
I do or don't understand:
1. I understand the meaning of the
curvature in the spine but not what effect
the curvature may have.
2. I understand the meaning of the
decreased signal/disc desiccation. I
understand what degenerative disc disease
is.
3. I do not understand what is meant
when they say the "disc desiccation is
secondary" to the disease.
4. I understand the vertebrae levels and
the labeling of their joints. I
understand what "osteoarthritic changes in
the apophyseal joints" means. I
understand what is meant by "bilateral
lateral recess narrowing."
5. I understand disc bulge - but not
"extra dural impression upon the right
sided epidural fat plane" or "foraminal
narrowing."
6. I do not understand "extradural
impression upon the thecal sac."
any help in figuring the rest of this out
would be greatly appreciated.
Sincerely,
keef
|
Tamadrummer
Active User, Really EHEALTHy
Joined: 15 Oct 2004 Posts: 710 Location: Zephyrhills,Fl
Posted: 11-18-05 15:12pm
Basically keef,
you are heading down the road of surgery.
The problem at l4/5 is going to lead to
siatic pain if you are not already
experienceing problems there. The dura is
the sheath that is covering the spinal
cord and so it appears to be necessary for
you to at a minimum, have a
micro-laminectomy. I am pretty sure you
are going to have to have a full lami
along with fusion at that level, and you
are also going to be having work done at
l5/s1.
You definatly have a lot of problems and
they need to get fixed. If you are ready
to feel better, go in with a positive
attitude and try to be flexible.
You will never be in more pain then when
post-surgery but after a bit of time, you
will reap the rewards of surgery.
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This page was last updated on June 11, 2008