Can any1 out there help me with this
question, I have been with my boyfriend
for 3 years and as far as I am aware
neither of us has had any other partner in
that time. About 3 months ago he got
tested and he showed up positive with
chlamydia so a few weeks ago I went to the
doc and got tested but I was clean and
negative for chlamydia. The thing is that
he has moved to another city so we only
see each other at the weekends and also in
the last few months I have come off the
pill meaning that we have been using
condoms. He swears that he was not with
any1 else and I am tending to believe him
but I dont think I should. Can you become
infected from a towel or another other way
besides having sex??? He also thinks that
the test may have been wrong or the doctor
could have lied about the results in order
to get him to buy the medication from his
pharmacy next door to his practice. Any
advice as I am seriously confused about
the whole thing becasue I dont think he
cheated but can it be explained any other
way. Is there a possibility that he had it
before our relationship and I didn't get
it in the last 3 years???
Thanks to any1 with any advice.
A chlamydia infection can be transmitted
only via unprotected sexual intercourse.
It seems that your boyfriend caught
Chlamydia infection after you started
using condoms because if he had it before,
you would have also tested positive for
the Chlamydia infection. It seems that
condoms protected you from the infection.
It is impossible for your boyfriend to
have had the Chlamydia infection for more
than 3 years and to not infect you while
having unprotected sex most of the time.
If you don’t believe the first doctor,
you may ask for a second opinion from a
dermatovenerologist.
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