Ok.... Wednesday morning I ejactulated, I
cleaned myself afterwards then 4-6 hrs
later I had intercourse. The intercourse
was with an ex gf, she isnt on the pill
and she only has one ovary.(she only has
periods, once every 6 months and twice in
a month when she does have her period).
Right now, she just had her second period
in 4 weeks. Shes due for another in 6
months. This is the pattern she has been
having since she had her ovary removed 3-4
years ago. similiar pattern at least.
Ok.... she did give me oral sex before we
actually had intercourse. Then we had
intercourse, no protection was used, nor
is she on birth control. I withdrew, then
about(accurately speaking) 5-8 seconds
later I ejactulated. Is it possible pre
ejactulation could have gotten her
pregnant? Or perhaps sperm from my
masterbaition before? Considering all the
circumstances, is it anyhow possible?
Tomorrow I will be taking her to have the
morning after pill. Tomorrow afternoon
it'll be aprox. 50-60 hrs after the
incident.
Im hoping someone more knowledgable then
myself will be able to help me in this
situation. I have researched the internet
and all things point to the possibility
being Very slim.
Thanks
|
mc4ever02
Supporter
Joined: 08 Feb 2007 Posts: 3636 Location: Orlando, FL Usa
Thanks: 5
Thanked:2
Posted: 04-20-07 07:22am
Well, I would not be worried about the
sperm from masterbation.
However, many woman conceive only having
one ovary. So your unprotected encounter
could result in pregnancy. I do believe it
is in both of your best intrest to take
the morning after pill. And in the future
you should both definitely use protection
if you are not ready to get pregnant.
Good luck.
|
Idony
Supporter
Joined: 23 Sep 2006 Posts: 1609 Location: virginia beach, va usa
Thanks: 11
Thanked:0
Posted: 04-20-07 12:05pm
having one overy has nothing to do with
anything, i only have one overy and
falopian tube (the left ones actualy) and
i still got pregnant without even trying
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